Common grammar mistakes!

[sniffles]

LOL Warren Harding had far more flaws than popularizing a word in our lexicon.

I imagine you must be ripping your hair out every time you read Shakespeare then.

Well I'll be a maverick (ugh, McCain totally retired that word from the English language) and ask this - why do we even care so much about conforming to a set of arbitrary rules? What even defines 'correct grammar'? If a mistake is made by the majority, should it be considered erroneous anymore? Shouldn't we focus more on the brilliance of our ideas than the method by which we expound them?

Shakespeare's grammar differs from modern grammar because language changes over time. Many of the rules of English grammar, syntax, spelling and punctuation were only codified during the nineteenth century when more of the populace became literate.

It's difficult to expound ideas brilliantly if one doesn't have the language skills to do so clearly. As Ken says, good grammar helps us to be better understood.

I do feel sympathy for people who are learning English as a second language, though. It is full of contradictory rules. But as someone who is learning a second language myself, other languages also have grammatical rules that seem contradictory.

[Yeung Gor]

Not really. Only the snobs will care to correct it for you without your asking for it

Essentially that is what I meant to say...

[Suet Seung]

I think having good grammar skills (and language skills) is just as important as having math skills. Most people only complain about either grammar or math is because they don't understand how it works. Once they understand and use it correctly, they'll naturally like it better than before.

I agree with what Ken and Sniffles said.

[Sparky]

language changes over time

I realize that, and that is precisely my point. I'm not advocating the complete abolition of grammar, but I disagree with the emphasis that some of us place on such arbitrary rules. Had we always been so rigid about our rules, the English language would've never evolved. Romance languages make heavy use of the subjunctive in places we would use the indicative, and our subjunctive has practically coalesced with the conditional. Latin used declensions like Old English, and today we are not suffering from communication issues because we decided to eschew declensions. Rules can and should become obsolete, so rather than worship our grammar handbooks, it's more important to study colloquial speech and allow language to evolve as necessary.

As for clearly communicating your ideas - my English grammar is fine, but I can guarantee there are 'English'-speaking communities in the US where I'd have difficulty communicating. The standardization of language (and grammar) is just another manifestation of power that allows for linguistic prejudice. Why is Ebonics not considered standard English, even in areas that are predominantly African American?

But my argument is heading towards postmodernism (gotta stop reading so much Foucault ) so I'll end here. Rather than continue to digress from the topic I'll contribute -- people tend to use the incorrect verb tense following the 'neither/nor' or 'either/or' construction. Verb tense agrees with the subject nearest the verb.

[oGaKirA]

As for clearly communicating your ideas - my English grammar is fine, but I can guarantee there are 'English'-speaking communities in the US where I'd have difficulty communicating. The standardization of language (and grammar) is just another manifestation of power that allows for linguistic prejudice. Why is Ebonics not considered standard English, even in areas that are predominantly African American?

I must agree. It's obvious your vocab is wider then mines...cuz I didnt(yea I know im missing apostrophes but that's my lazy net lingo) understand your first paragraph!!! Babe you gonna have to dumb things down for me if we date.

Two questions for you English Pros.

1. What is the United States official dictionary? Is it Webster's?

2. Does the official dictionary differ for other English speaking countries/regions, i.e. Britain? Reason I ask this is....the Brits certainly have words that we in the United States do not use and vice versa. ?

[sniffles]

Two questions for you English Pros.

1. What is the United States official dictionary? Is it Webster's?

2. Does the official dictionary differ for other English speaking countries/regions, i.e. Britain? Reason I ask this is....the Brits certainly have words that we in the United States do not use and vice versa. ?

The US doesn't really have an "official" dictionary as far as I know, but Webster's is generally acknowledged as the most thorough and precise.

Other English-speaking countries would certainly have different "official" dictionaries, for the reason you suggest. Certain words are not used in American English, or are used with different meanings. British English also has different spellings of some words, as well as different pronunciations.

[dictionary]

Grammar has got to be my weakest subject. In my writing I tend to make parallel mistakes. Example, "I like singing, walking, and eat." I really need a personal editor.

Here is a mistake I hear and see often: When you love someone you should let them know.

[mind_wander]

Grammar has got to be my weakest subject. In my writing I tend to make parallel mistakes. Example, "I like singing, walking, and eat." I really need a personal editor.

Here is a mistake I hear and see often: When you love someone you should let them know.

When you love someone, then you should let them know. I think this is supposed to be the correct missing grammer word.

[sniffles]

When you love someone, then you should let them know. I think this is supposed to be the correct missing grammer word.

Actually since someone is singular, it should be "If you love someone, let him/her know." You would only use them if you were speaking of loving several people.

[mind_wander]

Actually since someone is singular, it should be "If you love someone, let him/her know." You would only use them if you were speaking of loving several people.

True, it's nice to have this thread create for other's assisting one another's grammer error's.

[sniffles]

I was reading something on a forum the other day that reminded me of another word confusion instance I've seen a few times: bare / bear

When used as a verb, to bear something means to carry, or to suffer or endure. You bear a great weight, bear the pain, bear up under close scrutiny. You can also bear a child, as in to give birth.

To bare something means to expose or reveal it. Bare your innermost thoughts by revealing them to someone, bare your skin by taking off your clothes.

Bare can be converted into an adverb with the addition of -ly. Then it has a similar meaning to hardly or just: He was barely alive, I barely had time to get here before you left, that bikini barely covers her.

But you can't convert bear into an adverb. Bearly is not a recognizable word.

[mawguy]

My, what a bunch of curmudgeons we are! As this is a rant about improper grammar, I'm making the effort to put proper capitals back in my posts. :P

My little rant: the proper phrase is "I couldn't care less!" not "I could care less!"

In the simplest terms: the former means "I don't care." while the latter means "I care." That's just the way it is. Deal with it. :P

I need not repeat the others already aforementioned. Misuse of commas and apostrophes drive me up the wall as well.

[Linda]

Proper grammar on an internet posting site? Good lord...what miracles have you preformed here?

on a different note, do you people find the use of 'me and my friends' annoying?

The proper way to say it is "my friends and I".

[pannonian]

Actually since someone is singular, it should be "If you love someone, let him/her know." You would only use them if you were speaking of loving several people.

Aren't them and they used as third person, indefinite gender? That's what I've been told in the past anyway.

My, what a bunch of curmudgeons we are! As this is a rant about improper grammar, I'm making the effort to put proper capitals back in my posts. :P

My little rant: the proper phrase is "I couldn't care less!" not "I could care less!"

In the simplest terms: the former means "I don't care." while the latter means "I care." That's just the way it is. Deal with it. :P

I need not repeat the others already aforementioned. Misuse of commas and apostrophes drive me up the wall as well.

Correct. "I couldn't care less" means I already care so little about the subject that I coudn't possibly care any less about it.

[skylee]

on a different note, do you people find the use of 'me and my friends' annoying?

The proper way to say it is "my friends and I".

Actually, that's not right. The use of "me and my friends" could be grammatically correct depending on what is being said, or where the phrase is placed in the sentence. For instance, it would be "The apartment belongs to me and my friends" not "The apartment belongs to my friends and I." However, it would be "My friends and I own an apartment" not "Me and my friends own an apartment".

A very useful trick to knowing when to use one or the other is to take the "friends" out of the sentence. You wouldn't say "The apartment belongs to I" or "Me own an apartment" now, would you?

Aren't them and they used as third person, indefinite gender? That's what I've been told in the past anyway.

This is what I thought as well.

[Ken Cheng]

Actually, that's not right. The use of "me and my friends" could be grammatically correct depending on what is being said, or where the phrase is placed in the sentence. For instance, it would be "The apartment belongs to me and my friends" not "The apartment belongs to my friends and I."

In any case, "my friends" must precede the first-person pronoun.

[pannonian]

In any case, "my friends" must precede the first-person pronoun.

No particular need for item order, except to emphasise one item or another.

[Ken Cheng]

No particular need for item order, except to emphasise one item or another.

As a matter of courtesy and convention, the self-referencing pronoun comes last. Most people won't care very much, but if one goes strictly by grammatical and usage correctness, the self-referencing pronoun goes last.

[pannonian]

As a matter of courtesy and convention, the self-referencing pronoun comes last. Most people won't care very much, but if one goes strictly by grammatical and usage correctness, the self-referencing pronoun goes last.

Not really. Going by courtesy, if the object list begins with "me", then it emphasises that, and thus is inelegant, tasteless, self-centred, or whatever. But from a technical POV, there is nothing wrong with beginning the list with that - any object is as good as any other when compiling the list.

[Han Solo]

I was always taught that it is XX and I, and me and XX.

Me and XX is an informal use in conversation, but not correct grammatically.

Han Solo